My book and dictionary say that I can use sigular and plural verbs(both) for 'none'. But it seems like native speakers use plural verbs more. Is there any reason? The example sentence was; None of his sons live(s) with him. And they said 'live' is correct in the sentence.
When you see the sentence; Neither man trusts the other, I thought 'Neither men trust each other.' is right. Is this sentence right? How about 'Neither men trust the other.'?